Dermatologist MCQ Book | Prometric Exam Questions – 2025

PROMETRIC EXAM MCQ MATERIAL FOR DHA -MOH -HAAD (DoH) -DHCC -SMLE – SCHFS– OMSB – QCHP – NHRA – KMLE

Dermatologist Prometric Exam MCQ 2025

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• Paperback: 652 pages
• Total Questions: 2952
• Practice Tests: 12
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• Topics: For all Prometric Exams in Gulf Countries
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• Language: English
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• ISBN: 978-81-948196-6-0

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Best Dermatologist Prometric Exam MCQs 2025

1) The district nurse taking care of leg ulcers of an elderly man had requested a home visit by the GP for the patient’s daughter, who lives with the patient. The nurse had noticed that the daughter had – virtually overnight – developed unusual excoriation marks on her shins. The lesions appeared to be clearly demarcated from the surrounding normal skin and had a geometric pattern. The daughter denies having noticed the lesions and indeed reports that they are symptomless. The district nurse tells the GP that the daughter is an only child and is always at home with the father. She does not seem to socialize and appears to have very few friends.
What would be the most likely diagnosis in this case?
A. Atopic dermatitis
B. Dermatitis artefacta
C. Scabies
D. Eczema

Correct Answer: B. Dermatitis artefacta is a condition where the skin lesions are inflicted by the patient on themselves. It may be due to an underlying psychological problem, a form of emotional release from distressful situations, or attention–seeking behavior particularly when the patient is lonely. It is more common in women than in men. The lesions tend to have unusual shapes and may have a linear or geometric pattern. They are clearly demarcated from surrounding skin and usually appear overnight. Different methods may be used to injure the skin (nails, caustic soda, cigarettes). The lesions tend to be on exposed skin that is readily accessible to the patient’s hands.

Scabies is an infection of the skin with the microscopic mite Sarcoptes scabiei. Scabies spreads rapidly under crowded conditions where there is frequent skin-to-skin contact between people. Lesions are typically found in the webbing between the fingers and the skin folds on the wrist, elbow or knee. The rash is intensely itchy, especially at night.

2) A 23-year-old homosexual man visits a local GP while on holiday in the UK from Australia. He has noted a lesion on his penis that was initially nodular and painless, but has progressed over time to form a heaped-up ulcer. Sampling from the lesion reveals large, infected, mononuclear cells containing many Donovan bodies.
What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?
A. Chancroid
B. Genital herpes
C. Granuloma inguinale
D. Lymphogranuloma venereum

Correct Answer: C.

• Granuloma inguinale is an infection caused by Klebsiella granulomatis (previously known as Calymmatobacterium granulomatis). This is a Gram-negative bacillus that reproduces within neutrophils, plasma cells, and histiocytes, causing the infected white cells to rupture with the release of 20–30 organisms.

• The key features are a primary, painless, indurated nodule that progresses to a heaped-up ulcer, and the presence of infected mononuclear cells containing many Donovan bodies (the infection is also known as donovanosis).

• The infection is endemic in Australia, India, the Caribbean, and parts of Africa, and transmission is associated with unprotected sexual intercourse.

• Treatment is usually with doxycycline or trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, and patients are advised to refrain from sexual intercourse until the lesion has healed.

• Follow-up is advised to ensure complete resolution.

Other options:

• The finding of Donovan bodies invalidates all of the other options.

• A. Chancroid is incorrect. Chancroid is caused by infection with Haemophilus ducreyi and leads to genital ulcers and lymphadenopathy, both of which are painful. It mainly occurs in Africa, the Caribbean, and Southwest Asia.

• B. Genital herpes is incorrect. Genital herpes causes multiple painful vesicles which may result in erosions.

• D. Lymphogranuloma venereum results from specific Chlamydia strains. It begins with painless papules or ulcers, which quickly heal. These are followed several weeks later by painful enlargement of the inguinal lymph nodes (known as buboes).

3) An 85-year-old woman has large blistering lesions on the abdomen and thighs that come and go without therapy. Nikolsky’s sign is negative. She most likely has
A. Pemphigus vulgaris
B. Dermatitis herpetiformis
C. Bullous pemphigoid
D. Herpes gestationis

Correct Answer: C. There are antibodies to the skin basement membrane, but unlike pemphigus, antibody levels do not correlate with disease activity. Bullous pemphigoid is most common in the elderly, and the disease often starts with urticaria-like and pruritic erythematous lesions before classic blisters occur. Unlike pemphigus, mucosal lesions are minimal or absent.

4) A 25-year-old medical student comes to your office because he notes an area of hyperpigmentation on the glans penis. The lesion will start out more erythematous but seems to wax and wane and at times is almost completely resolved. He is otherwise healthy except for seasonal allergies for which he takes an over-the-counter medicine to treat as needed. What do you suspect?
A. Recurrent herpes genitalis
B. Fixed drug reaction
C. Lichen planus
D. Zoon’s balanitis

Correct Answer: B. This is a typical scenario for a fixed drug reaction related to pseudoephedrine, a common ingredient in cold and allergy medicine. HSV would have vesicles but could wax and wane with frequent recurrences. Lichen planus may be on the genitals in both the papular and erosive form but does not wax and wane. Zoon’s balanitis also tends to be persistent unless treated and typically presents as a glistening patch on the glans in an uncircumcised male.

5) A patient has yellow papules along the palmar creases.
Which condition does the patient probably have?
A. Lipoprotein lipase deficiency
B. Apolipoprotein E2 isoform
C. Apolipoprotein C2 mutation
D. Apolipoprotein B100 mutation

Correct Answer: B. Xanthoma striatum palmare are characteristic of type III hyperlipidemia (broad-β disease, familial dysbetalipoproteinemia) caused by a defective Apo E isoform. LPL deficiency and Apo C2 mutations cause type I (familial chylomicronemia), LDL receptor defects and Apo B100 mutations cause type II (familial hypercholesterolemia).

6) A 50-year-old female attends the surgery with a long history of recurrent red marks on her torso. These slowly expand by 2–3 mm per day into annular shapes that clear centrally, and then fade over days to weeks, leaving normal skin. Some of the lesions have fine scaling in their inner erythematous rim. They can reach a maximum of 10 cm in diameter. They have a seasonal preponderance, appearing every summer. She is otherwise well.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Erythema marginatum
B. Erythema migrans
C. Erythema induratum
D. Erythema annulare centrifugum

Correct Answer: D. Erythema annulare centrifugum (EAC) is an idiopathic, chronic, recurrent erythema, which is often seasonal. Triggers can be drugs or infections. Topical steroids usually cause involution of the treated lesions, but they do not prevent the occurrence of new lesions or recurrence of lesions at the original site.

• A. Erythema marginatum is characterized by macules that spread into patches associated with acute rheumatic fever (fever, carditis, migratory polyarthritis) caused by group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection.

• B. Erythema migrans develops 7 days after a tick bite and is a sign of Lyme disease. Lesions range from 10–50 cm in diameter and flu-like symptoms are common. Lyme serology is a key investigation when this is identified.

• C. Erythema induratum of Bazin is a nodular vasculitis (tender erythematous, indurated nodules and plaques), especially on the lower legs, associated with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Further investigations including chest X-ray and sputum culture are recommended when this is identified.

7) A 77-year-old man presents with an enlarging 3 cm diameter nodule on his scalp. A diagnostic excision is performed with 2 mm peripheral margins to the level of subcutaneous fat. Histology from the lesion shows a large dermal tumor composed of fibrocystic, spindle-shaped, and anaplastic cells. Several bizarre multinucleated giant cells are seen that contain lipid. The tumor has been excised completely with a minimal margin of 0.5 mm to the deep margin. What treatment would you recommend to the patient?
A. No more treatment is required
B. Re-excision with 2 cm margins
C. Mohs micrographic surgery
D. Refer for radiotherapy

Correct Answer: C. In this question, the patient is presenting with an atypical fibroxanthoma (AFX). It is a rare skin tumor that is most often seen on the head and neck of elderly patients. Cumulative sun exposure and previous radiotherapy are risk factors for developing AFX. It presents as a red, juicy dome-shaped nodule that may be crusty or ulcerated. They rapidly grow over 6–12 months enlarging to 2–3 cm in size. Histology shows fibrocystic, spindle-shaped, and anaplastic cells with characteristic lipid-containing multinucleated giant cells. The tumor is malignant and has the potential to metastasize but this is rare.

The treatment of choice is surgery with a minimal margin. In this case, the patient has had a diagnostic excision of a large AFX. The minimal deep margin of 0.5 mm is concerning and a further excision would be appropriate. Mohs micrographic surgery would be the treatment of choice as this would allow for complete excision with maximum preservation of non-involved tissue.

8) An asymptomatic 50-year-old man who has smoked one pack of cigarettes per day for 30 years comes to you for a general checkup and wants “the works” for cancer screening. In fact, he hands you a list of tests he desires. Which test is inappropriate based on the American Cancer Society guidelines?
A. Chest x-ray
B. Digital rectal exam
C. Flexible sigmoidoscopy
D. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test

Correct Answer: A. Neither the chest x-ray nor any other test has proven to be an effective screen for lung cancer (although spiral CT shows some promise). The digital rectal exam aids in screening for rectal and prostate cancer. Other options regarding colorectal cancer are flexible sigmoidoscopy every 5 years, colonoscopy every 10 years, or double-contrast barium enema every 5 to 10 years. PSA levels, though somewhat controversial, play a role in prostate cancer screening. The physical exam remains important (for example, in the detection of testicular and skin cancers), although definitive evidence regarding screening is sparse.

9) A 25-year-old man presents with a well-defined patch of hair loss on the scalp surrounded by ‘exclamation mark’ hairs. The scalp skin appears normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Alopecia areata
B. Discoid lupus erythematosus
C. Telogen effluvium
D. Tinea capitis

Correct Answer: A. Alopecia areata typically causes single or multiple, discrete, often round areas of complete baldness. It most commonly occurs on the scalp, but can affect the face or any hair-bearing part of the body. It is a form of non-scarring alopecia and lost hair may therefore regrow.

Signs of disease:

• Exclamation mark hairs — short, tapered hairs of a few millimetres in diameter are characteristic.

• There may be nail pitting.

Autoimmune associations:

• Alopecia areata is considered an autoimmune disease and may be seen in association with other diseases such as:

  • Vitiligo

  • Thyroid disease

  • Pernicious anaemia

• No specific antibody has been identified

• Approximately one-third of patients have a positive family history, implying that a genetic component is involved.

Prognosis:

• The condition is very unpredictable. Many patients experience hair regrowth within 6–12 months — new hair is often fine and initially white, some find that new areas of alopecia appear as older ones regrow, others have a more progressive pattern.

• Some cases progress to complete loss of scalp hair (alopecia totalis) and occasionally complete loss of all hair (alopecia universalis).

Treatment:

• Topical or intra-lesional steroids

• Topical minoxidil

• Contact allergen therapy

• Janus kinase inhibitors are a possible new avenue for treatment

• Some patients will benefit from a hairpiece or wig, false eyelashes or eyebrow tattooing

Dermatologist Prometric Exam MCQ 2025 has been developed by our professional team; Rapid Access Guide is the best seller book for all Gulf Countries Exams since 2000. It has an array of all topics; thousands of updated questions with correct answers and explanations certainly will help you to pass the exam at the very first attempt.

Job Application – General overview

There are many hospitals and Clinics in gulf Countries that have a Dermatologist specialty. You need to pass the Prometric exams to apply for a job in gulf countries. Generally, the minimum experience required is three years. You can visit the respective Health Authority websites to find the eligibility criteria. Once you have passed the exam, you can contact them for a job interview—some of them recruiting directly, and many of them taking interviews online.

The Prometric Application and Dataflow process is the most important factor while doing registration. Finishing it without any mistakes is very important, or it will lead to the rejection of the application. Dataflow takes typically 30 to 45 days to issue the report. You can proceed with the exam booking if it is a positive report. If it is a negative dataflow report, you can still contact them for re-evaluation. If it is a genuine reason, they will verify your certificate again. Meanwhile, Rapid Access Guide Publishers are providing the Prometric Exam booking and Dataflow process on behalf of you.

The below documents are required for proceeding with the exam booking process.

• A recent photograph (passport size)
• Copy of your valid passport.
• Your educational qualification certificates.
• Your experience certificates.
• Practice license or registration (From your Home / Working country)
• The Good Standing Certificate (GSC)
• A medical fitness test in case the applicant is aged 65 and above.

This MCQ-based Reviewer book is beneficial for the following Prometric exams.

1. DHA(DOH) Exam – Dubai Health Authority. (Dubai Prometric)
2. MOH Exam– Ministry of Health, Sharjah, UAE. (Sharjah Prometric)
3. DHCC Exam – Dubai Healthcare city.
4. HAAD Exam– Health Authority of Abu Dhabi. (Pearson VUE Test)
5. NHRA Exam – National Health Regulatory Authority, Bahrain.
6. QCHP Exam – Qatar Council for Healthcare Practitioners. (Qatar Prometric)
7. SMLE Exam – Saudi Medical Licensing Exam. (Saudi Prometric) OMSB Exam – Oman Medical Specialty Board. (Oman Prometric)
8. KMLE – Kuwait Medical Licensing Exam – Kuwait

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If you are preparing to become a dermatologist, one of the best ways to study for the Prometric Exam in the gulf countries is to purchase Rapid Access Guide dermatology MCQs book. Our life changing book will provide you with a wide variety of questions that will help you better understand the material covered on the exam. In addition, the questions in these books are usually more difficult than those you will find on a regular practice exam. As a result, you will be better prepared to pass the Prometric Exam if you use Rapid Access Guide dermatology MCQ book as part of your study material. Our clients advised that this is perfect book for Qatar prometric exam, Saudi Prometric exam, Oman Prometric exam and other countries as well. You will be able to buy hard copy book or online subscription (Instant Access) according to your preference.